Chapter 1: Introduction to Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	The first step in assessment of oral pathological conditions is:
A.	Recognition	
B.	Laboratory testing	
C.	Updating the medical history	
D.	Updating the dental history	

____	2.	Patient assessment begins:
A.	After the medical history is obtained	
B.	After the dental history is obtained	
C.	When the patient is observed in the waiting room or dental operatory	
D.	After the review of the medical history and oral examination	

____	3.	All of the following are examples of symptoms EXCEPT:
A.	Itching	
B.	Pain	
C.	Soreness	
D.	Leukoplakia	

____	4.	Identification of a disease from its signs and symptoms is known as:
A.	Pathology	
B.	Idiopathic	
C.	Iatrogenic	
D.	Diagnosis	

____	5.	The cause of a disease is commonly known as its:
A.	Pathology	
B.	Infectivity	
C.	Etiology	
D.	Neoplastic potential	

____	6.	Iatrogenic means a lesion:
A.	Occurred as a result of treatment	
B.	Is due to a genetic abnormality	
C.	Was caused by an infection	
D.	Was self-inflicted	

____	7.	Signs are:
A.	Subjective findings perceived by a patient	
B.	Subjective findings perceived by a clinician	
C.	Objective findings perceived by a clinician	
D.	None of the above	

____	8.	The act of listening to body sounds is known as:
A.	Inspection	
B.	Palpation	
C.	Percussion	
D.	Auscultation	

____	9.	The term bulla is used to describe a:
A.	Small blister that is less than 5 mm in diameter and filled with clear fluid	
B.	Creamy-white, inflamed, blister-like elevation that contains pus	
C.	Closed epithelial-lined cavity in the body	
D.	Vesicle or blister that exceeds 5 mm in diameter	

____	10.	A creamy-white, small (often less than 1 cm), blister-like elevation that contains pus is called a:
A.	Bulla	
B.	Pustule	
C.	Cyst	
D.	Macule	

____	11.	Epithelial-lined cavities that lie below the body surface and contain liquid or semisolid material are known as:
A.	Bullae	
B.	Vesicles	
C.	Cysts	
D.	Pustules	

____	12.	Papules are:
A.	Palpable masses that arise within the deeper tissues	
B.	Small solid elevations that are not fluid- or pus-filled	
C.	Blister-like elevations containing pus	
D.	Commonly seen in pemphigus and pemphigoid	

____	13.	Palpable masses greater than 1 cm that arise from the deeper tissues are called:
A.	Papules	
B.	Macules	
C.	Bullae	
D.	Nodules	

____	14.	A swelling or collection of cells appearing as a mass or lump is known as a:
A.	Tumor	
B.	Macule	
C.	Plaque	
D.	Papule	

____	15.	Which of the following terms best describes a flat, slightly raised patch or layer of material deposited on a tissue surface?
A.	Macule	
B.	Plaque	
C.	Fissure	
D.	Erosion	

____	16.	Which of the following terms describes a channel that communicates between an area of suppuration, such as an abscess, to the surface of the epithelium?
A.	Fissure	
B.	Ulcer	
C.	Sinus tract	
D.	Bulla	

____	17.	The removal of a sample of tissue from a large lesion to diagnose or determine the extent of a disease is known as:
A.	Incisional biopsy	
B.	Excisional biopsy	
C.	Exfoliative cytology	
D.	Brush biopsy	

____	18.	Exfoliative cytology refers to analyzing samples of:
A.	Tissue	
B.	Blood	
C.	Microbial cultures	
D.	Cells	

____	19.	All of the following are considered laboratory tests used to help reach a definitive diagnosis  EXCEPT:
A.	ELISA	
B.	Urinalysis	
C.	Serological tests	
D.	Auscultation	

____	20.	Which of the following serological tests can be used to determine the presence of an infection?
A.	Complete blood count (CBC)	
B.	Lipid profile (LDL)	
C.	Blood glucose monitoring	
D.	Hematocrit	

____	21.	Which laboratory test can be used to evaluate the level of hydroxyproline, a byproduct of bone destruction?
A.	DNA-PCR	
B.	ELISA	
C.	Electromyography	
D.	Urinalysis	

____	22.	Which of the following can be used to identify the DNA of HIV?
A.	DNA-PCR	
B.	Electromyography	
C.	Bacteriologic culture	
D.	CBC	

____	23.	Which laboratory test is useful in the diagnosis of Sjögren’s syndrome?
A.	Urinalysis	
B.	CBC	
C.	Antibody tests	
D.	Microbiological culture	

____	24.	Pathognomonic features are:
A.	Specific characteristics of a particular disease or lesion	
B.	Nonspecific symptoms experienced by the patient	
C.	Always present in infectious diseases	
D.	Not diagnostic	

____	25.	Which of the following describes a white line observed bilaterally along the plane of occlusion?
A.	Linea alba	
B.	Leukoedema	
C.	Fordyce granules	
D.	Physiological pigmentation	

____	26.	Which of the following describes a generalized translucent covering of the buccal mucosa, most commonly observed in dark-skinned individuals?
A.	Physiological pigmentation	
B.	Leukoedema	
C.	Linea alba	
D.	Fordyce granules	

____	27.	Fordyce granules:
A.	Appear translucent white or opalescent white	
B.	Occur as a consequence of the indentations from the opposing teeth	
C.	Contain melanin pigmentation	
D.	Are ectopic sebaceous glands similar to those normally found in the skin	

____	28.	Hairy tongue is the term used to describe which of the following?
A.	Elongated filiform papillae	
B.	Elongated foliate papillae	
C.	Elongated circumvallate papillae	
D.	Elongated fungiform papillae	

____	29.	Which of the following is not a true statement about tori?
A.	They represent excessive growths of normal bone.	
B.	They are exostoses.	
C.	They can occur in the palate or bilaterally along the lingual aspect of the mandible.	
D.	They most commonly occur in the presence of other disease processes.	

____	30.	Lingual tonsils are located:
A.	Within the tonsillar pillars	
B.	Adjacent to the filiform papillae	
C.	Beneath the foliate papillae	
D.	Beneath the fungiform papillae	

Chapter 1: Introduction to Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	2.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1

	3.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	4.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	5.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1

	6.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	7.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1

	8.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	9.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	10.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1

	11.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1

	12.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1

	13.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	14.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	15.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1

	16.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1

	17.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	18.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	19.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	20.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	21.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	22.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	23.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1

	24.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	25.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	26.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1

	27.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	28.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1

	29.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1

	30.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1